For the last two years, when taking my RMDs, I've transferred shares in FSKAX (Fidelity Total Market Index Fund) directly to my brokerage account since I don't need the proceeds. The primary reason has been to not realize the loss in value.
Is this a smart move?
Thank you.
RMD
- marathonwmn
- Posts: 150
- Joined: Tue Jul 01, 2008 1:15 pm
- Location: West of the Atlantic
RMD
The race goes not to the swift, but to those who keep on running. . .
Re: RMD
It is a perfectly reasonable thing to do but neither smart nor not smart.
Whether or not you realize a loss in a tax deferred account is relevant to nothing. Selling in the account and transferring the money is just a question of what you are going to do with the money next. If that means buying the fund back, then transfer in kind makes sense. If you are going to make some further change then you do that and maybe getting the cash would be simpler.
Be sure when you have transferred in kind that you now know the cost basis for the holding. The broker should have it right and for a mutual fund should be clear-cut. https://tickertape.tdameritrade.com/ret ... ew%20basis.
Whether or not you realize a loss in a tax deferred account is relevant to nothing. Selling in the account and transferring the money is just a question of what you are going to do with the money next. If that means buying the fund back, then transfer in kind makes sense. If you are going to make some further change then you do that and maybe getting the cash would be simpler.
Be sure when you have transferred in kind that you now know the cost basis for the holding. The broker should have it right and for a mutual fund should be clear-cut. https://tickertape.tdameritrade.com/ret ... ew%20basis.
Re: RMD
I had no idea it was possible to do a transfer in kind. Does Vanguard or Fidelity support doing a transfer in kind via their web sites? Most people aren't going to have cost basis for a rollover IRA from a 401K, for example. Can a transfer in kind be done from an inherited IRA which might have a better known cost basis?dbr wrote: ↑Tue Feb 07, 2023 8:46 am It is a perfectly reasonable thing to do but neither smart nor not smart.
Whether or not you realize a loss in a tax deferred account is relevant to nothing. Selling in the account and transferring the money is just a question of what you are going to do with the money next. If that means buying the fund back, then transfer in kind makes sense. If you are going to make some further change then you do that and maybe getting the cash would be simpler.
Be sure when you have transferred in kind that you now know the cost basis for the holding. The broker should have it right and for a mutual fund should be clear-cut. https://tickertape.tdameritrade.com/ret ... ew%20basis.
However, I'm wondering if OP is using the term "transfer" to mean selling shares for cash in the IRA then buying more of the same shares in the taxable account, which is a more typical approach to taking an RMD.
Re: RMD
No, you transfer the shares in kind, and, as explained in the article, the cost basis is set to the value on day of transfer. You just want to note what that is and verify that your broker has the right number.stan1 wrote: ↑Tue Feb 07, 2023 8:53 amI had no idea it was possible to do a transfer in kind. Does Vanguard or Fidelity support doing a transfer in kind via their web sites? Most people aren't going to have cost basis for a rollover IRA from a 401K, for example. Can a transfer in kind be done from an inherited IRA which might have a better known cost basis?dbr wrote: ↑Tue Feb 07, 2023 8:46 am It is a perfectly reasonable thing to do but neither smart nor not smart.
Whether or not you realize a loss in a tax deferred account is relevant to nothing. Selling in the account and transferring the money is just a question of what you are going to do with the money next. If that means buying the fund back, then transfer in kind makes sense. If you are going to make some further change then you do that and maybe getting the cash would be simpler.
Be sure when you have transferred in kind that you now know the cost basis for the holding. The broker should have it right and for a mutual fund should be clear-cut. https://tickertape.tdameritrade.com/ret ... ew%20basis.
However, I'm wondering if OP is using the term "transfer" to mean selling shares for cash in the IRA then buying more of the same shares in the taxable account, which is a more typical approach to taking an RMD.
Re: RMD
It is if you don’t need the cash and you don’t want to sell low.marathonwmn wrote: ↑Tue Feb 07, 2023 8:37 am For the last two years, when taking my RMDs, I've transferred shares in FSKAX (Fidelity Total Market Index Fund) directly to my brokerage account since I don't need the proceeds. The primary reason has been to not realize the loss in value.
Is this a smart move?
However, make sure that:
(1) You transfer enough shares to meet the RMD dollar requirement.
(2) The basis of those transferred shares has been reset to the market value on the date of transfer. Make sure that Fido updates your basis properly.
- marathonwmn
- Posts: 150
- Joined: Tue Jul 01, 2008 1:15 pm
- Location: West of the Atlantic
Re: RMD
Stan,
I'm transferring actual shares not selling for cash and then repurchasing.
I go to a local Fido office and they do it while I sit in the office. That way the share value doesn't change from one day to the next. Perhaps it can also be done over the phone although I'm not sure.
Best,
The race goes not to the swift, but to those who keep on running. . .
Re: RMD
The basis for the shares now in the taxable account becomes the day of transfer. It doesn’t carry-over from the IRA.
One thing that humbles me deeply is to see that human genius has its limits while human stupidity does not. - Alexandre Dumas, fils