secondopinion wrote: ↑Wed Feb 08, 2023 5:39 pm
seajay wrote: ↑Wed Feb 08, 2023 3:59 pm
AlphaLess wrote: ↑Thu Jan 19, 2023 10:28 pm
seajay wrote: ↑Mon Jan 09, 2023 12:25 pm
AlphaLess wrote: ↑Mon Jan 09, 2023 12:12 pm
People finally understanding that in year 2022 gold is not a great asset.
You'd have to sell 25% more stock index shares at the end of 2022 to buy the same amount of gold as at the start of 2022.
You might want to put down your narrow goggles, and get a source with a long history of data.
Bridgewater analysis summary goes back to 1900 - where gold returns (in global FX) during 60/40 downturns indicated strong inverse correlations.
67/33 stock/gold and if 67 stocks halve down to 33, 33 in gold doubles to 66, rebalancing back to 67/33 has you double up on the number of stock shares being held after prices had halved. Martingale. Reiteratable ad infinitum.
viewtopic.php?p=7014054#p7014054
I think the key is that it is based in global FX. Protection against country-specific inflation is no better than what a good foreign currency can do, however (for US investors, they are better with TIPS if inflation is the concern). I am not sold on the idea that gold operates exactly as described; however, if one is going to hold foreign currency or hold foreign bonds unhedged, then I think gold is probably not a bad choice if one considers after taxes.
I hold a little bit of precious metal, but the notion of having 1/3 in gold is just far too much. I rather focus on real growth and/or paying for expenses.
Holding some gold as a hedge/porfolio-insurance is of course optional. How much insurance as each individual might prefer. Heavier weighting/insurance obviously pays out more as/when a stocks-down/gold-up type event arises, and can have them rejoicing whilst others who held no such insurance are commiserating. How much is that insurance? Historically relatively little, Buffett style 90/10 stock/T-Bills broadly aligns with 100% stock, 90/10 stock/gold much the same, however T-Bills as insurance tends pay out less than does gold, T-bills inclined to remain level, gold in contrast tending to spike as/when stocks sink a lot. For heavier gold weightings stock declines can be a major win. For example at 50/50 stock/gold if 50 stocks halves to 25, 50 gold doubles to 100 then selling gold to buy stocks increases the number of shares held to five-fold. How often might that occur? Well to less extremes often enough for each investor to likely see benefits from holding some insurance during their investment lifetime.
Investment rewards arise out of price appreciation, income/dividends and/or volatility capture. Diversifying across all of those tends to be better than just targeting one of them alone.
1972 - 2001 30 year period and 100/0, 80/20 stock/T-Bill, 80/20 stock/gold ... similar overall rewards, where all-stock ended 2001 with 276.183K value (from 10K start of 1972 date amount), 80/20 stock/gold ended with 275.321K value.
If however at the end of 1974 gold had been sold to load into stocks then at the end of 1974 the stock/gold portfolio that started with 10K, was up to
11.277K value. 11.277K all stock value from the start of 1975 subsequently ran on to end 2001 at
448.345K value. Which was 63% more final value compared to 100/0 having ended 30 years with 275.321K, 1.64% annualized more over the 30 years. But where if even no gold into stock rotation had been applied the insurance cost of holding some gold was negligible, 276.183K final value for 100/0 versus 275.321K for 80/20 stock/gold over 30 years = 0.01% annualized less for 80/20 stock/gold.
67/33 stock/gold is pure Martingale, 66 stock value halves to 33, 33 gold doubles to 66, rebalancing back to 67/33 has you double up the number of stock shares after each halving. Which can be repeated if stocks then go on to halve again ...etc. With 80/20 and if 80 stocks halve to 40, 20 gold value doubles to 40 and you have the option to sell gold to double up on the number of shares held, a one off play, but where stocks halving and then halving again is a very rare natural type progression. Of course the inverse correlations aren't so clear-cut as that model, but tend to be in the same ballpark.